Bloodborne pathogens and Standard Precautions test

Transcription

1 Bloodborne pathogens and Standard Precautions test Name Date Score Circle or write the answer or answers. Ten correct answers are required to pass. 1. Name three bloodborne pathogens:,,. (worth three points) 2. All workers with a chance of exposure to blood or body fluids should receive Hepatitis B vaccine unless they shouldn t take it for medical or pregnancy reasons. True or False 3. Hepatitis B immunization requires a series of injections. 4. Persons who have received HBV vaccine and developed immunity are at virtually no risk for infection for hepatitis B. True or False 5. There is a vaccine against HIV. True or False 6. Most exposures lead to HIV infection. True or False 7. There is no vaccine against hepatitis C and no treatment after an exposure that will prevent infection. True or False 8. Proper handwashing requires lathering with soap for at least seconds. 9. The first thing you should do if you are exposed to blood or body fluids is: a. Wash needlesticks and cuts with soap and water. b. Flush splashes to the nose, mouth, or skin with water. c. Irrigate eyes with clean water, saline, or sterile irrigants. d. All of the above, depending on the area of the body exposed. 10. Standard precautions involve four basic things. Fill in the blanks below (four points). a.,. b. when might touch blood or body fluids. c. Wear,, or when splashing of blood or body fluids is likely, depending on the situation. d. Safely use and dispose of.

2 Communication Barriers Post Test Employee name: Date: Score: 1. Communication is a process beginning with a sender who encodes the message and passes it through some channel to the receiver who decodes the message. 2. What is considered some roadblocks to communication? a. Physical barriers b. Language barriers c. Gender barriers d. All of the above 3. The Limited English Proficiency (LEP) person may prefer or request to use whom to interpret for them? a. Friend b. Family member c. Significant other d. Any of the above 4. If the patient/client needs an interpreter provided who pays for the interpreter? 10 P a g e

3 5. Who should not be used as an interpreter? a. A minor b. Another patient c. Someone the patient/client approves d. A and B 6. What documents, if needed, be converted to the patient/clients native language? a. Information/Admission packet b. Consents c. Bill of Rights d. Grievance procedure e. All of the above 7. What type of laws stipulate that no one can be denied or forced to wait for medical care due to language barriers? 8. What federal agency guarantees equal opportunities in the workplace for people with disabilities? 9. What items are used to facilitate communications? a. educational materials b. visual aids c. special devices d. all of the above 11 P a g e

4 10. What are some techniques that can be used to communicate with the deaf person? a. Get the deaf person s attention before speaking. b. Look directly at the deaf person when speaking. c. Do not place anything in your mouth when speaking. d. All of the above 12 P a g e

5 Compliance Statement The Corporate Compliance Statement provided below is to be acknowledged and signed by every Agency employee as well as every employee working for the Agency on a contractual basis. CORPORATE COMPLIANCE POLICY Acknowledgment of Receipt and Understanding As you know, our Agency and our Staff members have always been committed to providing exceptional health care and upholding ethical conduct standards and legal compliance. Our policy formally and clearly states that there is a zero tolerance to any form of fraud or misconduct. This Agency believes that every employee or agent plays a key and active role in maintaining its image and reputation. I hereby acknowledge that I have apprised of and agree to comply with the Agency s Corporate Compliance Policy. I understand that in no way does this create an obligation or contract of employment and that I, as well as the Agency, have the right to end the employment relationship at any time. Employee s printed name: Employee s signature: Date: 13 P a g e

6 Corporate Compliance Post Test Employee name: Date: Score: 1. A Corporate Compliance program is a system which is designed to detect and prevent violations of law by the agents, employees, officers and directors of a business. 2. Each employee receives training on Corporate Compliance at the time of hire and annually. 3. What items identifies that the employee has received training and agrees to comply with the Corporate Compliance policy? 4. What are the potential penalties the agency may face for noncompliance? a. prison b. fines c. sanctions d. possibly all of the above 14 P a g e

7 5. How often does the Corporate Compliance Committee meet? a. Yearly and as needed b. As needed c. Every 6 months d. When an issue arises 6. The Agency and it contractors to abide by all state and Federal laws and regulations including, but not limited to the following: a. The Federal False Claims Act b. The Stark Bill c. State licensure requirements d. Federal, state and local Civil Rights Laws e. All of the above 7. If the employee reports fraud, waste or abuse to the OIG under what law are they protected? 8. What is the title of the agency employee that is the point person for any Corporate Compliance issues? 9. The sections of the Policies and Manuals that address corporate compliance issues include but are not limited to: a. ADMINISTRATIVE POLICIES b. PATIENT CARE POLICIES c. FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT POLICIES d. PERSONNEL POLICIES e. QUALITY ASSESSMENT AND PERFORMANCE IMPROVEMENT POLICY f. All of the above 15 P a g e

8 10. The Corporate Compliance Committee agenda for its scheduled Meetings may include which of the following? a. Review of fraud alerts issued by the Officer of the Inspector General. b. Review of topical issues with respect to corporate compliance in the health care industry in general and in the Home Health Care industry in particular. c. Review of Hot-line referrals made to the CCO. d. Any of the above. 16 P a g e

9 Cultural Diversity Post Test Employee name: Date: Score: 1. How often is Cultural Diversity training required? a. On hire and annually b. On hire c. Every 6 months d. As needed 2. Cultural differences are not limited to ethnicity and race relations; they extend to areas of religious views, sexuality and even differences in geographical differences pertaining to the location of one s upbringing. 3. Where an employee lives or has lived can contribute to cultural differences in the workplace. 4. What federal agency prohibits companies from discriminating against employees for any reason? a. OSHA b. CMS c. U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission d. All of the above 5. Cultural backgrounds may affect how people act, behave and communicate. 11 P a g e

10 6. A diverse workplace includes employees considered: a. Traditionalists b. Baby boomers c. Generation X d. Generation Y e. Millennials f. All of the above 7. Culture is defined as a set of values, practices, traditions or beliefs a group shares, whether due to age, race or ethnicity, religion or gender. 8. By staying abreast of what 3 items, can managers become equipped on how to handle conflicts in the organization that may stem from cultural differences? a. State guidelines, agency policies and EEOC guidelines. b. Federal guidelines governing employment discrimination, the importance of cultural diversity and employment practices. c. Employees different religions, age of employees, birthplace of employees. 9. Conflict in communications between cultures also is avoidable when all parties resist assigning: a. Criticism b. Prejudices c. Blame d. All of the above 10. Staff will identify the patient s individual beliefs based on their cultural background and develop the plan of care accordingly at what point? a. On intake b. Upon admission c. When discharged d. All of the above 12 P a g e

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12 Ethics Post Test Employee name: Date: Score: 1. The Code of Ethics is intended to serve as a guideline to the agency in the following areas: a. Patient Rights and Responsibilities b. Relationships to Other Provider Agencies c. Fiscal Responsibilities d. Marketing and Public Relations e. Personnel f. All of the above 2. What is the major ethical issue in homecare? 3. When is the Patient s rights provided to the patient? a. After the agency receives MD orders b. When the patient asks for them c. On admission d. On discharge 4. It is the policy of the Agency to provide care within an ethical framework established by the professional disciplines provided by the Agency, established in Agency policy and procedure, and as established by law and standards of care. 5. Refusal of an individual staff member to participate in certain aspects of care based upon personal values and beliefs will not disrupt the patient/client s care. 11 P a g e

13 6. Ethical issues for employees include: a. Working or traveling on certain religious holidays b. Right to life issues c. Administering blood transfusions d. Respecting an individual decision not to seek medical care because of their religious beliefs e. All of the above 7. How will the agency ensure the staff is following the agency s Ethics policy? a. The agency shall be an equal opportunity employer and comply with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations. b. The agency shall have written personnel policies available to all employees and uniformly applied to all employees. c. The agency shall provide an ongoing evaluation process for all employees. d. All of the above. 8. Discrimination can be because of which of the following? a. Race b. Gender c. Color d. Religion e. All of the above 9. The provider shall not engage in "kick-backs" and "pay-offs." 10. Relationships with patients, particularly sexual relationships, are allowed if the patient approves. 12 P a g e

14 HIPAA TEST 1. Among other things, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) contained provisions to expand the availability of health care insurance coverage. 2. The HIPAA privacy rules that have been promulgated must be implemented by covered entities by April 14, HIPAA privacy rules are always followed even if the state's law is more stringent. 4. The ability to store patient health information electronically has dramatically increased the need for privacy rules. 5. Health care providers, health plans, health care clearing houses and business associates are all considered covered entities under HIPAA and subject to all its rules and regulations. 6. Information that is created by an entity, including paper, electronic, videotapes, photos, is referred to as protected health information (PHI).

15 7. The minimum necessary rule means that only necessary information should be shared even if the patient has given authorization. 8. Patients have the right to know what disclosures have been made and are entitled to receive a free accounting every 12 months. 9. According to HIPAA, employees are responsible for getting training about privacy rules on their own; the employing agency is not mandated to provide training. 10. All agencies covered by HIPAA must appoint a privacy officer and establish an internal compliance process to assure that patient rights are not being violated. 11. Certain information is exempt from HIPAA, e.g., cause of death, communicable disease, abuse. 12. CMS has promulgated rules regarding how information must be coded for billing submission to Medicare and Medicaid.

16 Identification of what is at risk. Circle appropriate answers below: 13. File Cabinets containing charts will be protected by: a. Locked office/locked cabinets b. Sign on cabinet. c. Fingerprints d. Not applicable 14. Discarded PHI Papers and forms will be protected by: a. Placing them in the dumpster b. Putting them in a paper bag and then in the garbage c. Using a shredder d. Burning them 15. Faxed copies of information will be protected by: a. Placing them in the dumpster b. Putting them in a paper bag and then in the garbage c. Using a shredder d. Burning them 16. Previously scanned documents will be protected by: a. Placing them in the dumpster b. Putting them in a paper bag and then in the garbage c. Using a shredder d. Burning them

17 17. Inactive Patient Charts will be protected by: a. Discarding them in the trash b. Storage/Computer Back-up c. Burning them d. Storing them in the Administrator s home 18. Obsolete Patient Schedules will be protected by: a. Placing them in the dumpster b. Putting them in a paper bag and then in the garbage c. Burning them d. Shredder 19. Obsolete Patient Routing Slips will be protected by: a. Placing them in the dumpster b. Putting them in a paper bag and then in the garbage c. Using a shredder d. Burning them 20. Employee Workstations will be protected by: a. Closing your computer at night b. Password c. Giving your supervisor access to your computer d. None of the above

18 21. Electronic Claim Submission will be protected by: a. Router and Firewall b. Closing the program when not in use c. Storing the program in the Administrator s home d. Not Applicable 22. Our Internal Database will be protected by: a. Closing the program when not in use b. Daily Back-up c. Storing the program in the Administrator s home d. Not Applicable 23. Our Internet Server will be protected by: a. Router and Firewall b. Closing the program when not in use c. Storing the program in the Administrator s home d. Not Applicable 24. Daily Data Back-up will be protected by: a. Automatically b. Office Manager c. Reception Team d. Each individual worker

19 25. Doctor s Smart Phone Patient Info will be protected by: a. Automatically b. Office Manager c. Physician d. Not Applicable 26. Our Telephone Answering System will be protected by: a. Internal Phone System b. Each individual staff member c. Office Manager d. Not applicable 27. Our electronic confirmation service will be protected by: a. Administrator b. Service Provider c. Office Manager d. Not applicable 28. ing Patient Information will be protected by: a. Internet Provider b. Administrator c. Encryption d. Not Applicable

20 29. Receiving ed Patient Information will be protected by: a. Internet Provider b. Administrator c. Encryption d. Not Applicable 30. Digital x-ray transmission will be protected by: a. Internet Provider b. Administrator c. Encryption d. Not Applicable

21 Handling Complaints and Grievances Post Test Employee name: Date: Score: 1. According to agency policy, the agency must protect and promote each patient/client's rights. A. True B. False 2. A is a concern relating to patient care conditions or to relationships between a patient/client and the Agency or a caregiver in which the patient/client believes that he/she has been wronged and wants the wrong corrected. 3. Who in the agency must approve and is responsible for the operation of this process, unless the responsibility is delegated in writing? 4. The following best practice list of techniques can help managers effectively handle employee complaints and grievances: a. Be a good listener b. Do not argue c. Treat all employees with respect d. All of the above 3 P a g e

22 5. When a patient is admitted to the Agency, he/she is given an admission packet that includes what to items that relate to the Complaint and Grievance agency policy? a. A copy of the Agency Bill of Patient Rights and Responsibilities b. A copy of the Grievance procedure c. A letter from the Administrator d. a and c e. a and b 6. The log is used to document complaints. 7. Each written or verbal grievance received is to be responded to in writing by the Administrator within days. 8. If the patient files an appeal to a compliant resolution, it is to be reviewed and responded to by within thirty (30) days of its receipt by the Agency. a. Governing body member b. Administrator c. Nursing Director d. Physician 9. When handling a complaint with an employee if your decision is distasteful to the employee in question, take the time to explain it and answer any questions. 10. How long is complaints and grievances documentation kept for? 4 P a g e

23 INFECTION CONTROL GUIDELINES: STANDARD PRECAUTIONS & ADDITIONAL PRECAUTIONS: TEST Name: Date: Score: (number correct) Select the right answer. 1. If a client has the flu, you should use the following Additional Precautions: a. No Additional Precautions are necessary. b. Wear a mask, gown, gloves, and goggles whenever you are in the client s room. c. Wear a mask when working close to the client. d. Isolate the client from all contact with others. 2. You should use Standard Precautions when: a. A client appears to be sick. b. Doing all client care. c. You are sick. d. You know the client has AIDS or hepatitis. 3. When disposing of a needle or other sharp object, always: a. Place it carefully in a biohazard puncture-proof container without touching the sharp end. b. Recap it very carefully. c. Leave it alone and tell your supervisor. 4. When changing a bed or handling linens, the correct Standard Precautions procedure is to: a. Shake out the linens to remove any objects or dirt. b. Place the used linens on the floor or a table. c. Wash linens soiled with body fluids separately from other laundry. d. Roll the dirty linens up and hold them away from you until they can be placed in a laundry bag. 5. If a client has an infected wound, use the following Additional Precautions: a. Standard Precautions are good enough. b. Wear a gown, gloves, mask, and goggles while in the client s room. c. The client should not go to the dining room until the wound is healed. d. Put gloves on before entering the client s room and remove them right before leaving. 6. Clients may share walkers, wheelchairs, and other equipment without worrying about cleaning it between clients. True or False 7. Write the four types of disease transmission: 8. List the four basic rules of Standard Precautions: 9. Standard Precautions only protect against airborne diseases. For bloodborne, contact, and droplet transmission, Additional Precautions must be used. True or False 10. Airborne germs, like tuberculosis, can travel long distances through the air. True or False

24 Improving Patient Care by Reporting Problems with Medical Devices 10 SELF ASSSESSMENT QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following products ARE FDA regulated medical devices? A. Examination gloves B. Software to run an MRI machine C. Home pregnancy kit D. All of the above 2. Which of the following is NOT true about the premarket review of medical devices? A. Clinical studies must be conducted if the manufacturer files a premarket approval application to market a device. B. The premarket review process guarantees the safety and effectiveness of medical devices. C. The manufacturer must develop good testing and manufacturing practices prior to marketing a device. D. A premarket notification can be filed by a manufacturer who can demonstrate the similarity of the new device with those already on the market. 3. Which of the following statements emphasizes the importance of post market surveillance by healthcare professionals? A. Problems related to durability of a device will only be seen upon actual use in patients. B. The majority of medical devices do not undergo clinical trials. C. Premarket testing cannot detect problems with devices that may occur in certain clinical situations. D. All the above statements are true. 4. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the three broad categories of medical device adverse events? A. Use Problems B. Clinical Problems C. Labeling Problems D. Device Problems 5. Which of the following is NOT a device user facility? A. An oral surgeon s office B. A home healthcare agency C. A diagnostic laboratory D. A nursing home 6. Which of the following is NOT a reportable event under MDR? A. Device user error resulting in the death of a hospital patient B. A life threatening device related event which occurred in an a ambulance C. Death of a patient due to a medical device which occurred in a physician s office D. A serious injury to a patient which occurred in an outpatient mammography unit. 7. Which of the following IS true for healthcare professionals working in a device user facility? A. Health professionals are responsible for determining if a device related event is reportable under MDR. B. Health professionals must report device related events according to their facility s procedures. C. The responsibility for reporting device related death or serious injury events rests ultimately with the health professional. D. Healthcare professionals should not play any role in helping their facilities identify device related events. 8. Which of the following incidents must be reported by the user facility under MDR? A. The serious illness of a patient in a hospital which might have been caused by a drug B. Confusing instructions about the operation of a medical device C. Serious injury to a patient possibly caused by a medical device in a nurse practitioner s office D. A device malfunction in a same day surgical facility which results in the death of a patient. 9. Which of the following device reports would NOT be of interest to FDA? A. Problems noted during the maintenance or servicing of a device which could affect the safe use of the device B. Serious injury as a result of a rented hospital bed to a patient under the care of a home health agency C. A health professional s individual preference for a particular device. D. User error caused by confusing device instructions 10. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Reports from health professionals and other sources provide valuable information about device problems. B. To ensure the safety of medical devices, FDA can utilize mechanisms such as relabeling, Public Health Advisories, Safety Alerts, and recalls. C. Manufacturers are not required to investigate, evaluate, and identify the underlying causes of device adverse events reported to them. D. If a product is not a medication (drug or biologic) and it is used for treatment or diagnosis, it is probably a medical device.

25 Patient Rights Test Choose the best answer. Question True False 1. All clients know their rights. 2. If a client tells me that he/she is aware of the protections offered by the Bill of Rights I do not have to give him/her a copy. 3. If a client refuses services I can perform the service if he or she really needs it. 4. Clients can voice their concerns and complaints. 5. If I do not use identifying information, I can call in report to my supervisor while I am in a public place. 6. A client can refuse service from a caregiver because of religion. 7. An agency can refuse to provide service to a client because of the client s religion. 8. Client rights may only be exercised before care is initiated. 9. Clients do not have to be made aware of changes in the Plan of Care. 10. Clients may expect their clinical records are always be treated as confidential. 11. Every resident has the right to be free of chemical and physical restraints. 12. Home care clients have rights guaranteed by law.

26 Respiratory disorders test Name Date Score (Must have at least 7 correct answers) 1. The normal rate of respiration is to breaths per minute. 2. The main function of the respiratory system is to inhale oxygen into the lungs, transfer the oxygen to the blood, and exhale carbon dioxide. True or False 3. Asthma can affect people of any age. True or False 4. A positive tuberculin test (PPD) means a person has TB disease and is contagious. True or False 5. Two things that will help prevent the spread of pneumonia and flu are: and immunization. 6. Clients with COPD should not exercise. True or False 7. Which of the following symptoms should be reported to a supervisor? a. Cough, shortness of breath, cyanosis b. Respiratory rate of 16 and regular c. Relaxing and visualizing 8. A client who has difficulty with ADLs because of shortness of breath might be advised to: a. Drink less water. b. Use pursed-lip breathing and take frequent breaks. c. Let someone else do everything for them. 9. Which of the following can cause breathing problems for a client with a lung disorder? a. Perfume. b. Dust. c. Humidity. d. All of the above. 10. Clients with COPD often suffer from depression, anxiety, or forgetfulness due to: a. Old age. b. Personality disorder. c. Lack of oxygen.

27 TEST 1. Tuberculosis is an airborne disease carried on mucous droplets. 2. Tuberculosis is spread through casual contact such as hand shaking. 3. Tuberculosis Is the leading cause of death in the United States. 4. Your age, sex, or where you were born does not affect your risk for TB 5. When a patient goes home after being diagnosed with active TB and put on medication, they can go with the family grocery shopping. 6. The Mantoux, or PPO skin test is done on the upper arm muscle. 7. A positive PPD test means you have active TB. There is no need for further testing to confirm the results. 8. BCG may affect the results of a PPD skin test 9. Signs and symptoms of TB include long term cough, chest pains, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. 10. TB infection and TB disease is the same thing. 11. People with HIV or compromised Immune systems, are already sick so they cannot Get TB. 12. An individual with Inactive T8 will have a positive skin test but no symptoms. 13. TB can be diagnosed from a deep cough sputum specimen taken before bedtime. 14. Home Care Staff do not need to take any special precautions with their bags, equipment or clothing. 15. In a facility, when leaving the isolation room, a regular surgical mask should be worn by the person with active TB.

28 Multiple Choice 16. Which of the following drugs are not used for treatment of: a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutol c. Rlfampln d. They are all used for treatment of TB 17. Signs and symptoms of TB include: a. coughing up blood, chest pain, sneezing b. Long term cough, chest pain, coughing up blood c. Chest pain, shortness of breath, migraine headaches d. long term coughing, coughing up blood, increased appetite 18. The side effects of medication taken for TB include: a. yellowish eyes or skin b. abdominal pain c. Increased symptoms with alcohol use d. All of the above 19. It is important to use alternate birth control methods when a. Inactive 18 IS present b. exposed to TB c. Taking Rifampin to treat TB d. None of the above

29 20. TB is: a. preventable b. treatable c. dangerous to those with a weakened immune system d. all of the above

30 Test Questions for 12/1/13 OSHA Training Select all that apply: 1. OSHA was created to: a. Enforce local and state regulations b. To require employers to assure a safe and healthful workplace c. Provide a place to buy protective equipment d. As a catch all for employee complaints, in general 2. Under OSHA, employees are entitled to a. Working conditions that do not pose serious harm b. Ask for regular pay increases c. Bring their lunch to work d. Take vacation 3. Under OSHA, employers are responsible to (circle all that apply) a. Provide a safe workplace b. To inform employees about hazards through training, labels, alarms, color-coded systems, chemical information sheets, etc. c. Keep accurate records of work-related injuries and illnesses d. Post OSHA citations, injury and illness data and the OSHA poster. 4. SDS a. Is the new acronym for MSDS b. Means Service Date Same c. Will give symptoms for diseases d. Stands for Safety Data Sheets 5. The chemical name, code number or batch code on the product label is: a. A way of pricing the product

31 b. Will show up in purple print c. Is the product identifier d. Isn t important 6. The level of severity of a hazard and way to alert the user of a hazard is identified by use of 2 signal words. Those words are: a. Read and Act b. Danger and Warning c. High and low d. Front and back 7. A square shape with a black hazard symbol on a white background with a red frame is called: a. Modified square b. Red label c. Pictogram d. Hazard block True or false 8. Where a chemical has multiple hazards, different pictograms are used to identify various hazards T F 9. When precautionary statements are similar, the one providing the most protective information will be included on the label T F 10. The new SDS will only contain 2 sections T F