ASSIGNMENT An element that enables a seadependent nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as 1-5.

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ASSIGNMENT 1 Textbook Assignment: Chapter 1, U.S. Naval Tradition, pages 1-1 through 1-22 and Chapter 2, Leadership and Administrative Responsibilities, pages 2-1 through 2-8. 1-n element that enables a seadependent nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as sea power naval power 3. global strategy 4. national strategy 1- The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation s ability to use the sea to further its national objectives naval power 3. aggression 4. population 1-3. It is more feasible to send naval forces, in comparison to other military forces, into crisis areas for which of the following reasons? The cost is low Naval forces can stay on station indefinitely 3. Naval forces leave behind no physical reminders of their presence 1-4. To continue to exist as we know it today, the United States must have a policy that recognizes its 3. 4. economy naval strengths national security worldwide commitments 1-5. 1-6. 1-7. 1-8. What are the three fundamental pillars on which United States military strategy rests? 3. 4. Maritime superiority, deterrence, and alliance solidarity Control of the seas, deterrence, and forward defense Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity Forward defense, control of the seas, and alliance solidarity Which of the following responses could the United States take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy? Meet force with force Control the duration of the fighting 3. Increase the intensity of the conflict 4. Each of the above The Navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with 3. 4. In be a great number of personnel and materials secure sea-lanes a large fleet flexibility time of emergency the Navy must able to venture into harm s way. True False 1

1-9. Which of the following is NOT a component of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces? 1-14. Which of the following fleets would you find in the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions? 1-10. Intercontinental ballistic missiles Sea-launched ballistic missiles 3. Aircraft carrier battle groups 4. Long-range bombers What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD? Intercontinental ballistic missiles Sea-launched ballistic missiles 3. Long-range bombers 4. Cruise missiles 1-15. First Second 3. Third 4. Seventh Which of the following terms describes an attack that is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective? Strike Threat 3. Assault 4. Aggression 1-1 1-1 1-13. What is the sole mission and fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine? To deter war To seek out and destroy enemy submarines 3. To provide a backup for the Strategic Air Command 4. To provide the United States with a first strike capability The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes? To deter nuclear attack To provide a first strike capability 3. To maintain nuclear equality with the U.S.S.R. 4. To act as an instrument of political leverage or coercion Ships of the Second Fleet patrol some of the world s most important trade routes. In what area of the world does the Second Fleet normally patrol? Mediterranean Sea Western Atlantic 3. Eastern Atlantic 4. Eastern Pacific 1-16. 1-17. 1-18. 1-19. Which of the following characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets? Size Mobility 3. Strength 4. Weaponry Which of the following types of task forces is/are organized primarily for strike force operations? Carrier Surface 3. Submarine The primary mission of our submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships? Submarines Destroyers arriers 4. Cargo The first fleet ballistic missile submarine was launched in what year? 1955 1959 3. 1960 4. 1961 2

1-20. When the term is understood the following The base The missile 3. The submarine TRIDENT is used, it to include which of elements? 1-2 Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles? 1,200 2,500 3. 3,500 4. 4,000 A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special Figure 1A. --Types of warfare. TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 1-22 THROUGH 1-26, SELECT FROM FIGURE 1A THE TYPE OF WARFARE DESCRIBED IN THE STATEMENT. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL. 1-2 The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons. 1-23. The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships. B C 3. E 4. F 1-24. 1-25. 1-26. 1-27. 1-28. Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature. 3. D 4. F This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy. Correctly interpreted, this type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy s forces and capabilities. B C 3. D 4. E Which of the following types of warfare assists in detecting and targeting hostile forces and making it more difficult detect and target for the enemy to friendly forces? Special Electronic 3. Intelligence 4. Ocean surveillance Antiship missiles can be launched several hundred miles from the target. From which of the following platforms can they be launched? ircraft Submarines 3. Surface ships 4. Each of the above 3

1-29. The Aegis weapons system is installed on which of the following platforms? F-14 aircraft Submarines ruisers Figure 1B.--Weapons. TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 1-30 THROUGH 1-34, SELECT FROM FIGURE lb THE WEAPON DESCRIBED IN THE STATEMENT. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL. 1-30. Capable of simultaneously tracking 24 hostile air targets and launching 6 missiles against 6 different targets. 1-3 Has a very small cross section and flies at low altitude; radar detection is difficult. 1-3 Fires 20-mm, high-density penetrating projectiles at 3,000 rounds per minute. 1-34. Provides defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles. 1-35. If your ship is assigned to the Second Fleet, it would probably conduct refresher training at which of the following locations? Guantanamo Bay, Cuba San Diego, CA 3. Bremerton, WA 4. Norfolk, VA 1-36. Routine drills are based on ship s bills and stem from basic bills outlined in which of the following publications? U.S. Navy Regulations Refresher Team Training Manual 3. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 1-37. What inspection is conducted to test the operational ability of the crew and ship in wartime conditions? dministrative Inspection Propulsion Examining Board 3. Operational Readiness Inspection 4. Board of Inspection and Survey 1-38. What inspection is scheduled by higher authority, without the knowledge of the commanding officer, to determine if the ship is fit for continued naval service? INSURV PEB 3. ORI 4. PMS 1-33. Has a and a 500-lb high-explosive warhead contact fuse. 4

1-39. Through the various treaties with other countries in the world, what portion of the land area are we committed to defend? 25 percent 50 percent 3. 75 percent 4. 80 percent 1-40. Our naval forces conduct various exercises with allied forces for which of the following reasons? To prepare for deployment To professionally operate as one unit 3. To develop better foreign relations 4. To allow less units to deploy overseas 1-4 To ensure your work center meets the deadlines set for the completion of tasks, which of the following factors must you properly manage? Personnel, maintenance, and time Material, maintenance, and time 3. Personnel, material, and time 4. Maintenance, watch standing, and time 1-4 Which of the following resources within your division are the most important in accomplishing a task? Personnel and time Maintenance and time 3. Personnel and materials 4. Maintenance and personnel 1-43. A little time should be spent in your office in the morning and afternoon, then the rest of your time should be spent in the work area. 1-44. As a minimum, how often should you assess your division s personnel and material readiness? Daily iweekly 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly 1-45. When you assess your workers job performance, you should look at which of the following areas? Knowledge, work habits, and character Attitude, knowledge, and work habits 3. Attitude, work habits, and character 4. Attitude, knowledge, and character 1-46. To keep abreast of the knowledge and experience of your personnel, you should randomly review each member s departmental record divisional record 3. training record 4. service record 1-47. At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies? Daily Weekly 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly 1-48. Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory? EDL JSN 3. OPTAR 4. POA&M 1-49. Each command should ensure all hand and power tools are assigned serial numbers. 5

1-50. The equipment deficiency list contains all of the following information except when it was discovered and the action taken the space and space location 3. the problem or deficiency 4. the PMS requirements 1-5 What is the work center s most valuable resource? Equipment Personnel 3. Material 4 Schedule 1-5 The Enlisted Distribution Verification Report can better enable your division to fulfill which of the following requirements without an adverse effect? Liberty Training 3. Watch standing 4. Temporary additional duty 1-53. Based on the ship s overall manpower, how are TAD requirements usually allocated? By TYCOM directive y work center 3. By department 4. By division 1-54. Which of the following schedules allows for losses in manpower, logistic problems, work stoppages, and personnel training? Work center schedule Annual employment schedule 3. Planning board for training 4. Quarterly employment schedule 1-55. From the annual employment schedule, all other schedules are developed. 1-56. Jobs on your work center schedule are listed by what order of precedence? Priority Location 3. Numerical 4. Alphabetical 1-57. What writing instrument should be used to fill out a work center schedule and time line? Felt-tip marker all-point pen 3. Highlighter 4. Pencil 1-58. After your schedule is approved, which of the following requirements should be met? Goals Working hours leaning assignments 4. Maintenance assignments 1-59. Including your junior petty officers in the planning process prevents which of the following problems from occurring? rguments Harassment 3. Skylarking 4. Misunderstandings 1-60. How many goal setting elements should you consider when setting goals within the work center? One Two 3. Six 4. Eight 1-6 Keeping abreast of changes prevents crisis management from occurring. 6

1-6 When you attend department meetings, remember to check which of the following factors before the meeting? ssess personnel Work progress 3. Organizing 4. Planning 1-63. As major job completion dates near, you should never allow which of the following situations to happen? Change the work priority Shorten the work day 3. Neglect major jobs 4. Neglect minor jobs 1-64. Assigning your junior petty officers challenging jobs will increase which of the following skills? Management Leadership 3. Organizational 4. Administrative 1-68. Who generates letters of instruction and command counseling sheets? Work center supervisor Division officer 3. Division chief 4. Both 2 and 3 above 1-69. Counseling sheets and letters of instruction are entered in a member s service record. 1-70. A page 13 entry reflects which of the following types of job performance? verage Good 3. Bad 4. Both 2 and 3 above 1-65. The work center supervisor has the complete responsibility for the completion of a job. 1-66. When delegating authority, you should delegate to which of the following competent levels to develop your subordinates? Highest Average 3. Lowest 1-67. You should inform your subordinates of their standing in the division in which of the following ways? By giving awards y the use of counseling 3. By the use of a memorandum 4. By awarding special privileges 7