1 MCI Institute 1
STAFF NURSE CUM TUTOR (NCLEX/AIIMS/PGI/ESIC/RRB/DSSSB/PGIMERE/SIC/NRHM/ NUHM/ NHM/CRPF/UPSC/SSC/ SSSC/ NSG/ LIC/BCCL/RRC) FEE: 16000 (Including 1000 Reg. Fee) (30 TEST: 25 MINOR + 5 MAJOR) 2
NURSING OFFICER BATCH DURATION: 6 MONTH CLASS+ LIFETIME WEB Id FEE: 12000 (Including 1000 Reg. Fee) (30 TEST: 25 MINOR + 5 MAJOR) Academic Batches M.Sc. Nursing (ALL year/ ALL Subject) Fees 7,000/subject Duration: 4 month P.B.Sc. Nursing (ALL year/ ALL Subject) Fees: 5,000/subject Duration: 3 month B.Sc. Nursing (ALL year/ ALL Subject) Fees: 3,000/subject Duration: 3 month GNM (ALL year/ ALL Subject) Duration: 3 month Fees: 3,000/subject NURSING OFFICER FEE STRUCTURE AND SHEDULE FREE DEMO: 15-20 MAY BATCH DURATION: 6 MONTH CLASS+ LIFETIME WEB Id FEE: 12000 (Including 1000 Reg. Fee) Timings: 4-8pm (Summer) & 2-7pm (Winter) 1. An insulin drip is initiated for a patient with 40 u of insulin in 100 ml of normal saline solution. The I.V. is being infused via an infusion pump and the pumps is currently set at 20ml/hour. How many units of insulin is infused each hour? (A) 4 U (B) 8U (C) 0.4 U (D) 0.8 U 3
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MINOR TEST (UNIT WISE) 34
1. ENTRANCE 2. OBG UNIT- I + MS, A/P-CELL + CHN 3. OBG UNIT I + MS,A/P-TISSUE + CHN 4. OBG UNIT I + MS,A/P-BLOOD + CHN 5. OBG UNIT-II + MS,A/P CV + CHN 6. OBG UNIT II + MS,A/P -CV + CHN 7. OBG UNIT III + MS,A/P -CV + CHN 8. OBG UNIT IV + MS,A/P -ENDOCRINE + CHN 9. OBG UNIT IV + MS,A/P -ENDOCRINE + CHN 10. OBG UNIT V + MS,A/P -INTEGUMENTRY + FUNDAMENTAL 11. OBG UNIT V + MS,A/P -ENT + FUNDAMENTAL 12. OBG UNIT V + MS,A/P -ENT + FUNDAMENTAL 13. OBG UNIT V + MS,A/P -NERVOUS + FUNDAMENTAL 14. OBG UNIT VI + MS,A/P -NERVOUS + FUNDAMENTAL 15. OBG UNIT VI + MS-URINARY + FUNDAMENTAL 16. OBG UNIT VI + MS,A/P -RESPIRATORY + FUNDAMENTAL 17. OBG UNIT VII + MS,A/P -RESPIRATORY + FUNDAMENTAL 18. OBG UNIT VII + MS-GI + MICROBIOLOGY 19. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P -GI+ PHARMACOLOGY + MICROBIOLOGY 20. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P -GI+ PHARMACOLOGY + NUTRITION 21. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P MUSCLES,BONES + PHARMACOLOGY + NUTRITION 22. PAEDIATRIC + MS,A/P -ONCOLOGY+ PSYCHO-PSYCHIATRIC + NUTRITION 23. PAEDIATRIC + PSYCHO-PSYCHIATRIC + BIOCHEMISTRY 24. PAEDIATRIC + PSYCHO-PSYCHIATRIC + BIOCHEMISTRY 25. NURSING MANAGEMENT, RESEARCH & EDUCATION MAJOR TEST (COMPLETE SYLLABUS) 1. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-I 2. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-II 3. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-III 4. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-IV 5. NURSING OFFICER MAJOR-V Join us our Advance Latest Exam based test series for AIIMS-NCLEX Available: Online & Offline. DID YOU KNOW? Some Important Honours Father of (Modern) Medicine: Hippocrates Father of Indian Medicine: Charaka Hindu God of Medicine: Dhanvantari Father of (Modern) Surgery: Ambroise Pare Father of Indian Surgery: Sushruta Father of Epidemiology/Modern Epidemiology: John Snow Father of Bacteriology: Louis Pasteur Father of Biology: Aristotle Father of Genetics: Gregor Mendel Father of (Modern) Anatomy: Vesalius Father of Physiology: Claude Bernard 35
FEVERS Fever Causative Organism Sandfly fever Arbovirus Lassa fever Arena Virus Glandular fever Ebstein Barr Virus Bartonneuse fever Rickettsiae Conori Oroya fever Bartonella Pretibial fever Leptospirosis Canicola fever Leptospirosis Swamp fever Leptospirosis Seven day fever Leptospirosis Haverhill fever Streptobacillus Moniliformis Scarlet fever Streptococci Pontiac fever Legionella SIGNS OF PREGNANCY Chadwicks sign: congestion of pelvis causes bluish/purplish hue of vagina/cervix Leucorrhea: non fern pattern of cervical mucus Goodells sign: cyanosis and softening of cervix Ladins sign: softening of uterus in anterior midline Hegars sign: compressibility of isthmus on bimanual examination Mc Donalds sign: uterus becomes flexible at utero cervical junction. Von Frendwals sign: irregular softening of fundus at site of implantation. Piskaceks sign: softening of cervix with lateral implantation Osianders sign: pulsations in lateral vaginal fornix Palmers sign: rythmic contractions of uterus Weinberg sign: abdominal pregnancy IMPORTANT DAYS IN SPM 7th April World Health day 31st May No tobacco day 1st July Doctors day 9th October World sight day 1st December World AIDS day 24th March Anti TB day 30th January Anti Leprosy day IMPORTANT SYNDROMES ASKED IN EXAMINATIONS Lowes syndrome: Hypophosphatemic rickets+aminoaciduria+cns and eye defects Potters syndrome: Pulmonary hypoplasia+renal hypoplasia+ear deformities. Cat eye syndrome: Partial trisomy 22 Floppy baby syndrome: Due to clostridium botulinium. 36
Dandy walker syndrome: Due to obstruction of Foramen of Magiende and Lushcka. Mc Leod syndrome: Unilateral pseudoemphysema occurring in child hood. Williams Syndrome: Infantile hypercalcemia. Caudal regression syndrome: Seen in diabetics HOW to take Online Exam Login www.mcinursing.com Enter your Registered E-mail id and password 37
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SAMPLE TEST BY MCI Kota Syllabus COVERED:- Nervous system, Fundamental, OBG You know that nothing is a guarantee, yet I know success is guaranteed with faith, hard work, persistence, flexibility, determination and courage. God luck in your journey to the future. 2. Clinical manifestation of hypokalemia include (A) Spiky T wave (B) Prolonged PR interval (C) Positive Chvostek s sign (D) Muscle weakness 3. Core body temp can be obtained from (A) Rectum (B) Tympanic membrane (C) Right atrium (D) All of the above 4. Best position for a client in hypovolemic shock is (A) Knee chest (B) Trendleberg (C) Fowlers (D) Lateral position 5. Best position given to an unconscious client while performing oral care is- (A) Supine (B) Sitting (C) Side lying (D) fowlers 6. Tapping over facial nerves cause twisting if the facial muscles. It is known as- (A) Chvostek s sign (B) Trosses sign (C) Trousseaus sign (D) Homan sign 7. Elevated specific gravity can be seen (A) DI (B) Dehydration (C) Hypervolemia (D) Hypokalemia 41
8. Cleaning of thermometer needs to be done in.. Direction after taking temperature. (A) Bulb to stem (B) Stem to bulb (C) Midway b/w stem & bulb to stem (D) Midway b/w stem bulb to bulb 9. Which one is the most abundant anion in extracellular fluid? (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Bicarbonate (D) Chloride 10. Following blood transfusion a patient is developed chills fever and dyspnea what should be the first action by the nurse? (A) Call the physician immediately (B) Provide one dose of antihistamine (C) Slowly and increase water intake (D) Stop the blood transfusion 11. Low blood pressure that happens when a person stands up from sitting or lying down is known as- (A) Postural hypotension (B) Orthostatic Hypotension (C) Supine hypotension (D) Both A & B 12. What is the systolic BP fall occur in postural hypotension (A) 5 mmhg (B) 10 mmhg (C) 15 mmhg (D) 20 mmhg 13. Twick yellow drainage from the wound is known as? (A) Sanguineous (B) Sero-sanguineous (C) Serous (D) Purulent 14. Anti-coagulant of choice for estimating blood glucose is (A) EDTA (B) Sodium (C) Sodium citrate (D) Heparin 15. The sound heard during BP measuring is? (A) Resonance sound 42
(B) Doll sound (C) Korotkoff sound (D) Normal sound 16. Coagulation of blood can be prevents except? (A) Removing calcium (B) Activating thrombin an thromboplastic (C) All of the above (D) None of them 17. Minimum erythrocyte hemolysis occur in the following solution- (A) 0.92 0.94 % Nacl (B) 0.94 0.96 % Nacl (C) 0.90 0.92 % Nacl (D) 0.96 0.98 % Nacl (E) None of them 18. Which of the following provides immune responses? (A) Platelet (B) Eosinophil s (C) Lymphocyte (D) Basophils (E) Macrophages 19. A cell would tend to gain water if it were moves from. (A) An isotonic solution to a hypotonic solution (B) A hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution (C) A hypertonic solution to an isotonic solution. (D) A hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution. (E) More than one of above 20. The scale used for the assessment of pressure ulcer is- (A) Braden scale (B) Norton scale (C) Wong Baken scale (D) Glasgow coma scale 43
(E) A & B both 21. Movement of a body part towards the body s midline is termed as? (A) Abduction (B) Adduction (C) Extension (D) Pronation 22. To avoid pulling the urinary catheter, nurse should tape the catheter on patients (A) Lower thigh (B) Upper thigh (C) Hind leg (D) Foot 23. On application of hot compress to a client heat is transmitted through? (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Evaporation (D) Radiation 24. Excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body will leads to? (A) Respiratory acidosis (B) Respiratory Alkalosis (C) Metabolic Acidosis (D) Metabolic Alkalosis 25. To provide fowlers position, the heat of client should be elevated to? (A) 15 o Angle (B) 35 o Angle (C) 45 o Angle (D) 60 o Angle 26. Which among the following solution is hypotonic (A) 0.95 % NS (B) 0.45 % NS (C) 3 % NS (D) 5 % D 27. A nursing incharge analyze the client ABG reports and find that ph 7.35, PCo2 51 mmhg and Hco3 is 32 meq/l. the condition is? (A) Metabolic Alkalosis (B) Respiratory Alkalosis (C) Compensated metabolic acidosis (D) Compensated Respiratory acidosis 28. Antidote of heparin is - 44
(A) Vitamin K (B) EDTA (C) Protamine Sulphate (D) Amniodarone 29. Burn, injury, DKA etc will leads to - (A) Respiratory acidosis (B) Respiratory Alkalosis (C) Metabolic acidosis (D) Metabolic Alkalosis 30. The nurse is inserting an intravenous line into a client s vein, after the initial stick, the nurse would continue to advance the catheter in which situation? (A) The catheter advances easily (B) The vein is distended under the needle (C) The client does not complain of discomfort (D) Blood return shows in the backlash chamber of catheter 31. A nurse should want to discontinue IV line, she should obtain which item from inventory for applying pressure to the site after removing the IV catheter. (A) Betadine swab (B) Elastin wrap (C) Adhesive bandage (D) Sterile 2 x 2 gauze 32. EQUIVOCAL CSI indicates (A) Satisfactory results (B) Unsatisfactory results (C) Suspicious results (D) Normal results 33. Which of these is a slide test to determine the leakage of amniotic fluid. (A) Fern test 45
(B) Phenapthazine test (C) NST (D) CST 34. CARDIF formula related to (A) FHR (B) Fetal kick count (C) Fetal presentation (D) Fetal lie. 35. PAP SMEAR is done to find out (A) Uterine fibroid (B) Cervical Neoplasia (C) Cervical polyp (D) Eclampsia 36. Which investigation is done to confirm the GA? (A) AFI (B) USG (C) Urine test (D) Blood test 37. MSAFP refers to- (A) Maternal sample of alpha feto protein (B) Maternal serum alpha feto protein (C) Maternal serum advanced feto protein (D) Maternal status of alpha feto protein 38. If normal female energy requirement is 2500 kcal now pregnant women require? (A) 2800 Kcal (B) 300 Kcal (C) 3500 Kcal 39. Rubella is- (A) Mumps (C) German measles (D) 400 Kcal (B) Measles (D) None 40. No. of ante natal visits as per WHO - 46
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2 41. Eating nonnutritive substance such as dirt, clay etc indicate- (A) TICA (B) MICA (C) PICA (D) JICA 42. What amount of extra calorie requirement of a lactating mother? (A) 300 Kcal (B) 400 Kcal (C) 500 Kcal (D) 900 Kcal 43. Backache during pregnancy is caused by (A) Due to increased weight (B) Due to skin changes (C) Due to hormonal change (D) Due to ex-aggregated lumbosacral curve 44. Enlarge, twisted, superficial vein in lower limb (A) Hemorrhoids (B) Varicose vein (C) Aneurysm (D) Constipation 45. FHR can be observed through Doppler at (A) 10 12 week (B) 20 25 week (C) 18 20 week (D) 34 36 week 46. Total weight gain during pregnancy about (A) 25 lb (B) 38 lb (C) 34 lb (D) 21 lb 47. During pregnancy sebaceous gland in areola become hypertrophied is known as (A) Montogomerys tubercle (B) Primary areola (C) Linea nigra (D) Chlosma gravidum 48. Normal duration of pregnancy is- (A) 270 da (B) 280 day 47
(C) 290 day (D) 310 day 49. Regular and rhythmic uterine contraction elicited during binanual examination indicate (A) Hegar sign (B) McDonald sign (C) Palmer sign (D) Chadwicks sign 50. The mask of pregnancy refers to- (A) Chloasma gravidarum (B) Striae gravidarum (C) Linear nigra (D) None of these 51. Percutaneous umblical blood sampling is (A) Amniocentesis (B) Cordocentesis (C) Doppler blood flow analysis (D) Triple test 52. Triple test is the combination of- (A) MSAFP + urine test + Progesterone (B) MSAFP + HCG + Progesterone (C) MSAFP + HCG + UE3 (D) HCG + UE 3 + Progesterone 53. Treatment of hemorrhoid include in pyrosis (A) Warm sitz bath (B) Cold sitz bath (C) Cold sponge bath (D) None of these 54. Life style modification included in pyrosis (A) Kegals exercise (B) Tailor sitting exercise (C) Pelvic tilt exercise (D) Walking 55. Perineal muscles exercise for pregnant women 48
(A) Kegals exercise (B) Tailor sitting exercise (C) Pelvic tilt exercise (D) Walking 56. Which vitamin is essential for increasing absorption of iron (A) Vit- A (B) Vit- B (C) Vit C (D) Vit D 57. Which anaemia is caused by PICA (A) Megaloblastic anaemia (B) Iron deficiency (C) Pernicious anaemia (D) Aplastic anaemia 58. The nurse is teaching the patient with multiple sclerosis. When teaching the patient how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the patient to (A) Take a hot bath. (B) Rest in an air-conditioned room (C) Increase the dose of his muscle relaxant. (D) Avoid naps during the day. 59. The nurse is teaching a patient and his family about dietary practices related to Parkinson s disease A priority for the nurse to address is risk of: (A) fluid overload and drooling (B) Aspiration and anorexia. (C) Choking and diarrhea. (D) Dysphagia and constipation. 60. An elderly patient has just suffered a stroke that has left him with amnesia. Amnesia is a symptom associated with damage to which vessel? (A) Carotid artery 49
(B) Anterior cerebral arteries (C) Vertebrobasilar artery (D) Middle cerebral artery 61. Which condition places a patient at risk for an embolic stroke? (A) Atrial fibrillation (B) Bradycardia (C) Deep vein thrombosis (D) A history of MI 62. After a patient experiences a brain stem infarction, the nurse should observe for which condition? (A) Aphasia (B) Bradypnea (C) Contralateral hemiplegia (D) Numbness and tingling to the face or arm 63. The nurse is aware that Bell s palsy affects which cranial nerve? (A) 2nd CN (Optic) (B) 3rd CN (Occulomotor) (C) 4th CN (Trochlear) (D) 7th CN (Facial) 64. Where are the cerebrums hemispheres divided? (A) Down the lateral sulcus (B) Down the longitudinal fissure (C) Down the central sulcus 65. A male client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which assessment finding is the most significant? (A) Even, unlabored respirations (B) Soft, non-distended abdomen (C) Urine output of 50 ml/hr (D) Warm skin 66. A male client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar 50
ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis? A. (A) ph, 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg (B) ph, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg (C) ph, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg (D) ph, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg 67. The diagnostic work-up of a client hospitalized with complaints of progressive weakness and fatigue confirms a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The medication used to treat myasthenia gravis is: (A) Prostigmine (neostigmine) (B) Atropine (atropine sulfate) (C) Didronel (etidronate) (D) Tensilon (edrophonium) 68. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? (A) Graves disease (B) Myasthenia gravis (C) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (D) Cardio vascular accident (CVA) 69. SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson s Disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment. The patient was prescribed with levodopa. What is the action of this drug? (A) Increase dopamine availability (B) Activates dopaminergic receptors in the basal ganglia (C) Decrease acetylcholine availability (D) Release dopamine and other catecholamine from neurological storage sites 70. Wernickes area for sensory and speech found in (A) Temporal lobe (B) Parietal lobe (C) Frontal lobe (D) Occipital lobe 71. Cell division is absent in nerve cell because- (A) Nerve cell lacks mitochondria 51
(B) Nerve cell lacks Nissls granules (C) Nerve cell lacks Lysosome (D) Nerve cell lacks Centrosome 72. Collection of nerve fibers in peripheral nervous system called- (A) Ganglia (B) Nerves (C) Tract (D) Nuclei 73. A client with myasthenia gravis ask the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is (A) A genetic in the production acetylcholine (B) A reduced amount of neurotransmitter acetylcholine (C) A decreased number of functioning acetylcholine receptor sites (D) An inhibition of the enzyme ACHE leaving the end plates folded 74. A shuffling gait is typically associated with the patient who has: (A) Parkinson s disease (B) Multiple sclerosis (C) Raynaud s disease (D) Myasthenia gravis 75. All Cranial nerves are motor in functioning except (A) Trochlear (B) Abducence (C) Hypoglossal (D) Glossopharyngeal 76. Horse tail like terminal end of spinal cord known as- (A) Basal ganglia (B) Squoda equina (C) Filum terminal (D) Cauda equina 77. Patient with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for diagnostic make up. Myasthenia gravis can confirmed by: (A) Kernigs sign 52
(B) Brudzinski s sign (C) A positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test (D) Both A & B 78. Wrist drop causes by injury to which nerve- (A) Radial (B) Sciatic (C) Ulnar (D) Median 79. A patient admitted in stroke ward with closed eyes, in between assessment he is open his eyes to pricking with tongue depressor at left leg, and move back his leg, but when physician ask him where you are he is unable to give reply verbally. His Glasgow coma scoring will be- (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 11 80. Which is known as the Largest nerve in the body from given following options- (A) Vagus Nerve (B) Trigeminal nerve (C) Trochlear nerve (D) Sciatic nerve 81. SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson s Disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment. Which of the following is a characteristic of a patient with advanced Parkinson s disease? (A) Disturbed vision (B) Forgetfulness (C) Mask like facial expression (D) Muscle atrophy 82. Sphincter in gastro intestinal tract are constricted and relaxed by (A) Autonomic nervous system (B) Sympathetic nervous system (C) Parasympathetic nervous system (D) None of these 53
83. Myasthenia gravis is due to receptors being blocked and destroyed by antibodies. (A) Epinephrine (B) Dopamine (C) Acetylcholine (D) GABA 84. Normal ICP in supine position (A) 12 21 mmhg (B) 7 15 mmhg (C) 50 175 mmhg (D) 10 20 mmhg 85. Cheyne stroke refers- (A) Irregular respiration in rhythm and depth (B) Rhythmic respiration with periods of apnea (C) Irregular respiration with pause at the end of inspiration and expiration (D) Regular, rapid and deep sustained respiration 86. All statements are correct except - (A) Loss of blink reflex called corneal reflex indicate dysfunction of cranial nerve V (B) Loss of gag reflex indicate dysfunction of cranial nerve VII & X (C) Dorsiflexion of the big toe with extension called Babinski reflex (D) Involuntary flexion of the hip and knee when the neck is passively flexed called brundziski sign 87. Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? (A) Multiple sclerosis (B) Parkinson s disease 54
(C) Huntington s disease (D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob s disease 88. What is the following score indicate coma in an adult patient? (A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 12 89. Find the incorrect match (A) Agnosia- loss of sensory comprehension (B) Homonymous hemianopsis- blindness in half visual fiel (C) Apraxia loss of ability to carry out skilled gesture or movements (D) Agnosia inability to recognize familiar objects 90. To ensure the cerebral perfusion in case of stroke nurse should maintain which of the following- (A) Urine output 50 ml/hour (B) Blood pressure 150/100 mmhg (C) Body temp.98.6 o F (D) Perform passive range of motion 91. Uncoordinated movement of the extremities in a patient with a traumatic brain injury is termed as- (A) Ataxia (B) Apraxia (C) Dystonia (D) Dyskinesia 92. Which of the following activity is increased in sympathetic nervous system? (A) Heart rate (B) Secretion of digestive juice (C) Secretion of saliva 55
(D) All of these 93. A 40 year old male client is to undergo lumber puncture which of the following is the least important information about lumber puncture (A) It may use to withdraw CSF for diagnostic purpose (B) Specimen obtained to be labeled in their proper sequence. (C) Force fluid before and after the procedure (D) Assess movement and sensation in the lower extremities after the procedure. 94. A nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority which needs immediate intervention? (A) High risk for injury related to muscle weakness (B) Ineffective coping related to illness (C) Ineffective airway clearance related to muscle weakness (D) Pain related to muscle weakness. 95. The cranial nerve which regulate heart rate (A) VII (B) VIII (C) IX (D) X 96. Which of the following is the earliest sign of Parkinson disease. (A) Diplopia (B) Tremor (C) Forgetfulness (D) Muscle atrophy 97. SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson s disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment. You are discussing with the dietician what food to avoid with patients taking levodopa? (A) Vitamin C rich food (B) Vitamin E rich food (C) Thiamine rich food (D) Vitamin B6 rich food 98. Respiratory centers located in- (A) Mid brain (B) Medulla oblongata 56
(C) Pons (D) Cerebellum 99. Which part of brain called as seat of intelligence? (A) Cerebral cortex (B) Cerebrum (C) Cerebellum (D) Medulla 100. Volume of C.S.F. (A) 100 ml (C) 150 ml (B) 200 ml (D) 70 ml 101. Which of the following condition is an early symptom of myasthenia gravis? (A) Dysphagia (B) Ptosis (C) Fatigue (D) Respiratory distress Did you know:- Brain receives blood from the basilar artery and internal carotid artery. Branches of these arteries form circle of Willis. Venous drainage is by sinuses, which open into internal jugular vein. Normally, brain receives 750 to 800 ml of blood per minute. It is about 15% to 16% of total cardiac output and about 50 to 55 ml/100 g of brain tissue per minute. 57
Cushing reflex is a protective reflex that helps save the brain tissues from ischemic effects during the periods of reduced cerebral blood flow. It is also called Cushing reaction Did you know about blood capillaries:- Total number of capillaries 10 billion Surface area of all capillaries 500 to 700 sq m Average length 0.5 to 1 mm Average diameter 8 µ Pressure at arterial end 30 to 32 mm Hg Pressure at venous end 14 to 16 mm Hg Velocity of blood flow 0.05 cm/second SCOPE IN YOUR HAND Are you a Nursing Student? Are you looking for Staff Nurse Recruitment sectors? Did you complete your minimum Educational Qualification in Nursing such as Diploma Nursing or ANM Vacancy or GNM or B.SC Nursing, M.Sc Nursing or any other Nursing Courses? Here, we are providing you the Nursing Govt Recruitment areas in our Website. Every Day, Lakes of Job Opportunities are emerging The Nursing Candidates such as: Registered Nurses, Male Nurses, Female Nurses, Nursing Practitioners, Contract Basis Nurses, OT Staff Nurses, Nursing Staff and many other 58
nursing candidates have a Good Career Opportunities in many Top Organizations, Central Government Nursing Jobs, Health Care Centers such as ESIC, NRHM, NUHM, NHM, AIIMS, CRPF, UPSC, SSC, SSSC, NSG, LIC, DSSSB, BCCL, Govt Nursing Schools, Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force, Military Hospital, Railway Hospitals, Indian Railways RRB, RRC, Railway Hospitals, and State Government Jobs or Public Service Commissions such as Kerala PSC, APPSC, TSPSC, KPSC, HPPSC, TNPSC, RPSC, etc.., We will also prepare you for the Railway Jobs in various States such as AP, Goa, UP, MP, Delhi, Kerala, Bangalore, Chennai, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Rajasthan, Bhopal and various other places. There are lot of fields for the B.Sc Nursing, M.Sc Nursing, ANM, GNM, Diploma Nursing, and all other Nursing Courses in India. The Various Staff Nurse Govt. Job scopes are, OT Staff Nurse Vacancy, Nursing Vacancy, ISRO Vacancy, Govt Jobs for B.Sc Nursing, Nurses play a prominent role in the field of Medical Care and Health Care. Nursing has become a Profession which has a large number of Job Opportunities in today s job market. Although there are lot of private hospitals in and around our country, the nursing candidates and nursing professionals prefer Govt Hospitals. They are interested to work in the government hospitals, health care organizations, Medical Institutions due to various reasons. There are many vacancies for the Posts of Staff Nurses in the Government Organizations like Govt Hospitals, Nursing homes, Clinics. The Requirement for the Staff Nurses has been increasing every day. Hence, there are many recruitment and vacancy for nursing posts. Many Government Organizations provide Jobs for Nursing Staff in India. Most of the nursing candidates do not know the job opportunities for nurses, Nursing Practitioners, Nursing Staff, Registered Nurses, Pediatric Nurses, Contract Basis Nurses, and various other nursing candidates in India. Without knowing this, the nursing 59
candidates are going aboard such as USA, UK, Singapore, UAE, Europe, Saudi Arabia, Canada, Dubai and various other countries to work there. Nurses will have a Good Career MODI CAREER INSTITUTE H.N. 65 ARAVALI VIHAR, BORKHERA KOTA ADMISSION FORM 20 ----- 20 ---- Date of Application Ad. No. (To be filled by office) Class in which admission is sought Subject: 1).2).3) 4).. 5).. 1. Name of the Student... 2. Date of Birth.. 3. Blood Group.. 4. Details of major illness (If any) 5. Permanent Address:... Tel. /Mob.. 6. Caste.. Religion... Whether Belongs to S.C/S.T/O.B.C. 7. School/(Pre School last attended) 8. Father s Name Mother s Name 9. Academic Qualification. Occupation 60
DECLARATION BY THE PARENTS I hereby certify that above information provide by me is correct to the best of my knowledge. I have gone through, the prospectus, rules & regulations of the institution. Date:.. Signature of parent/guardian DECLARATION BY THE STUDENT I hereby declare that if I violate the rules and regulations of the Institute, Authorities will have the right to cancel my admission. Date:. Signature of the Student : Attach mark sheet (photocopy) of previous year. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY Name. Father s Name has been admitted in class..on.admission No..Amount donated at the time of admission Rs...Receipt No. Date.. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR STUDENTS. 1. The candidates must reach the INST/Centre on time Every day. 2. Maintain the discipline and don t talk with other students during lectures. 3. Should maintain daily study plan at home regularly and learn daily given notes accordingly 4. Solve all questions daily given by institution as DPP 5. Must attend all Test for central / state Exams conducted on Monday 6. Don t criticize any student. Give respect and take respect 61
7. Students will note bring their mobile phones with them in class 8. Pay special attention to regularity, reading, question solving and hard work. 9. Your behavior in institute must be well mannered (Acc. To inst. Rules) 10. You should always aware about your selection in any coming Competitive Exams. 11. Be update about coming vacancies and fill all Exam forms and don t ignore any Exam due to no of post, distance and time. 12. Think that you are a MCI Student, is a leading institute for Nursing 13. Discuss problems with higher faculty member in any query and difficulty. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION FOR FACULTY 1. Don t criticize any student and co-operative. Give respect and take respect. 2. Every teacher should talk about only moral stories in class 3. Pay special attention to regularity, absentees, new and weak students. 4. Submit questions regularly which are asked in current exams and solve them in class. 5. Motivate students about their selection. 6. Give directions how to learn in less time and for more time. 7. Update your teaching skills regularly 8. Prepare daily questionnaire. 9. Solve all test papers in class 10. Give information about latest vacancies. (central/ state) 62
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