ASSIGNMENT 8. Textbook Assignment: Chapter 12 Damage Control.

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1 ASSIGNMENT 8 Textbook Assignment: Chapter 12 Damage Control. 1. The damage control organization is divided into how many parts? QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. 2. What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage? 1. The damage control assistant 2. The operations officer 3. The executive officer 4. The weapons officer 3. Which of the following are duties of the administrative organization of damage control? 1. Records and schedules for maintenance 2. Written doctrine and procedures relating to damage control 3. Ship s bills 4. Which of the following are duties of the executive officer? 1. Ship s survivability training 2. Readiness to manage casualties ontrol and recover from damage 4. Each of the above 5. What officer is designated as the ship s damage control officer? 1. The commanding officer 2. The executive officer 3. The engineer officer 4. The operations officer 6. The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities? 1. Training the ship s DC personnel 2. Administration of the ship s DC organization 3. Maintain records of DC personnel PQS accomplishment for all hands 7. What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)? 1. Be a PO2 or above 2. Complete the PQS omplete the fire-fighting school 4. Be designated by the LCPO 8. Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what period of time? months 2. 9 months 3. 3 months 4. 6 months 9. Which of the following is/are responsibilities of the DCPO? ssist in the instruction of division personnel in damage control 2. Prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces 3. Make required reports 10. What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces? 1. The gas free engineer 2. The fire marshal 3. The DCA 4. The XO 39

2 11. What person is designated to aid the DCA train personnel and to prevent and fight fires? 1. The gas free engineer 2. The fire marshal 3. The DCPO 4. The LCPO 12. What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping during a daily inspection? 1. Record and advise the responsible division 2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head 3. Have the division LCPO schedule corrective action 4. Report the hazard to the safety department 13. The fire marshal has which of the following responsibilities? 1. Submitting reports citing hazards and recommendations for their correction 2. Setting up a fire watch team before regular overhauls 4. Inspecting the engineering department QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. 14. What is the purpose of the ship s damage control battle organization? 1. To stand at ready for the battle to be over 2. To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible 3. To comfort injured crew members 4. When directed, to take charge of the weapons 15. In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list, and trim? 1. The DCPO 2. The DCA 3. The XO 4. The CO 16. What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)? 1. Repair parties 2. Navigation crew 3. Deck crews 4. Engineering personnel 17. What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization? 1. DCC or CCS ridge 3. Aft steering C locker 5 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21, SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION. 18. Main deck repair. 1. Repair 1 2. Repair 3 3. Repair 5 4. Repair Propulsion repair. 1. Repair 1 2. Repair 3 3. Repair 5 4. Repair Ordnance. 1. Repair 2 2. Repair 4 3. Repair 6 4. Repair Electronic casualty control. 1. Repair 2 2. Repair 4 3. Repair 6 4. Repair Each repair party should be capable of performing which of the following functions? 1. Rigging casualty power 2. Controlling flooding 3. Extinguishing all types of fires 4. Each of the above 40

3 23. When in port, the ship has which of the following duty section components available to respond to any type of casualty? 1. In port emergency teams 2. Salvage teams 3. Duty DC watch eck department 24. The rescue and assistance detail must have which of the following qualifications? 1. Be qualified as an emergency team member e qualified in first aid 4. Have passed the PRT 25. General quarters is an all hands evolution it is the highest state of readiness of the ship. 1. True 2. False 26. Which of the following statements describes a correct GQ route to follow? 1. Forward in the passageways and down ladders on the starboard side 2. Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side 3. Forward in the passageways and up ladders on the port side 4. Aft in the passageways and up ladders on the starboard side 27. Which of the following is an emergency damage control communications system? 1. 2JZ 2. 6JZ 3. X40J 4. X24J 28. What system signals override microphone control stations to notify the ship s crew of imminent danger? larms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash 2. General announcing system 3. DC controls 4. Bridge alarms IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 29 THROUGH 31, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. 29. This alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship s company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency. 30. This alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit. 31. When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA. A. COLLISION B. CHEMICAL ATTACK C. GENERAL D. FLIGHT CRASH Figure A 32. Which of the following means of communications is used when all other methods have failed? 1. Messengers 2. Sound-powered telephones 3. Morse Code 4. Bullhorn 33. All Navy ships have how many material conditions of readiness? 41

4 34. What material condition provides the least degree of watertight integrity? 1. ZEBRA 2. YOKE 3. XRAY 35. What material condition sets the highest degree of watertight integrity? 1. ZEBRA 2. YOKE 3. XRAY 36. Which of the following fittings are closed when condition ZEBRA is set? 1. DOG Z fittings 2. Circle X fittings 3. Y fittings 37. What means, if any, is used by repair parties to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment? 1. Master alfa list 2. Compartment checkoff lists 3. DC compartment checks 4. None 38. The Damage Control Closure Log is maintained in which of the following locations? 1. DCC 2. Quarterdeck 4. Engineering spaces 39. Which of the following logs is a list of all DC-related fittings that don t work properly? 1. Damage Control Closure Log 2. Fire marshal pass down log 3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log 4. Bridge log 40. What fittings are secured when the ship is set for darken ship? 1. WILLIAM 2. Circle WILLIAM 3. DOG ZEBRA 4. Circle ZEBRA 41. The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time? minutes minutes minutes minutes 42. With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within what maximum period of time? seconds seconds seconds seconds 43. Which of the following breathing devices should NOT be worn for fire-fighting purposes? 1. OBA 2. SEED 3. SCBA 44. Which of the following is the primary fire fighting tool for respiratory protection? 1. EEBD 2. SEED 3. OBA 4. SCBA 45. From the time it is activated, each cylinder used in the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) will last approximately what length of time? minutes minutes minutes minutes 46. Which of the following substances must be present to start a fire? 1. Oxygen 2. Heat 3. Fuel 42

5 47. In the fire tetrahedron, how many components are necessary for combustion? 48. Flammable materials give off vapors. What is the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied? mbient temperature 2. Room temperature 3. Flash point 4. Ignition point 49. What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs? 1. Flash point 2. Ignition point 3. Ambient temperature 4. Room temperature 50. Heat from fire can be transferred by how many methods? 51. What method of heat transfer occurs when heat moves from one body to another by direct contact? 52. What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated gases? 53. What type of heat transfer occurs when heat moves in all direction unless blocked? 54. Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish a class B fire? 1. Water 2. AFFF 3. PKP 4. Both 2 and 3 above 55. Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish class A or D fires? 1. Water 2. AFFF 3. PKP 4. Both 2 and 3 above 43