1. At which of the following commands do Security Force Specialists serve in an Expeditionary capacity?

Transcription

1 Assignment 2: Expeditionary Security (Questions from pages 2-1 through 2-17) 1. At which of the following commands do Security Force Specialists serve in an Expeditionary capacity? a. NAS Sigonella b. NSA Norfolk c. Riverine Squadron One d. USS ENTERPRISE (CVN 65) 2. Which of the following missions is not included in the NECC Battlespace? a. Intelligence Collection b. Maritime Civil Affairs c. Airfield Security d. Strategic Weapons Security 3. Crew Composition for small craft in Maritime Expeditionary Security Forces include all the following except: a. Reactionary Force b. Coxswain c. Engineer d. Crewman/gunner 4. How many sailors comprise an Embarked Security Team? a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d Which of the following boats are not used by MESF forces? a. SURC b. 34-foot Dauntless SeaArk c. Organization d. 11 meter RHIB Assignment 2-1

2 6. Management of the watch team and direct control of all watch positions are the duty of which position? a. Tactical Supervisor b. Chief Of the Guard c. Reactionary Team d. Platoon leader 7. Which of the following NECC commands is responsible to develop, manage, and provide adaptive force package training? a. NAVELSG b. ETG c. ETC d. MESF 8. Which of the following NECC commands is responsible to deliver to a worldwide audience maritime expeditionary core capability training and instruction? a. NAVELSG b. ETG c. ETC d. MESF 9. Which of the following acronyms refers to mission planning? a. CVAMP b. BOGSAT c. BAMCIS d. MOPP 10. Which of the following instructions covers boat operations? a. NTTP 3-5 b. NTTP 3-10 c. NTTP 3-15 d. NTTP 3-20 Assignment 2-2

3 11. Which of the following instructions covers convoy operations? a. NTTP b. NTTP c. NTTP d. NTTP Which of the following instructions covers maritime interception operations? a. NTTP b. NTTP c. NTTP d. NTTP Which of the following instructions covers weapons handling and characteristics? a. OPNAVINST C b. OPNAVINST A c. NTRP d. NTRP Which of the following instructions covers RAVEN Operations? a. OPNAVINST D b. OPNAVINST C c. AMCI d. MCWP Which of the following instructions covers crew served weapons employment? a. NTTP b. NTTP c. MCWP d. MCWP Assignment 2-3

4 16. The Inshore Boat Unit is part of what area? a. Naval Coastal Warfare b. Naval Riverine Force c. Naval Security Force d. Strategic Systems Program and Submarine Force Protection Detachment 17. Where is Riverine Group One located? a. Corpus Christi, TX b. Mayport, FL c. Norfolk, VA d. San Diego, CA 18. Which area provides waterborne security for Navy installations and is part of an installation s organic security force? a. Naval Coastal Warfare b. Naval Riverine Force c. Naval Security Force d. Strategic Systems Program and Submarine Force Protection Detachment 19. What is Mobile Security Detachment (MSD) personnel not trained to conduct? a. Entry control point operations, including teams to clear small boats before they come alongside a protected asset b. Perimeter security around a pier c. Visit, board, search, and seizure (VBSS) operations d. Waterside security operations limited to harbor operating areas 20. Who does the ATTWO report to while in port? a. CO b. CDO c. TAO d. XO Assignment 2-4

5 21. Who does the COG report to? a. ATTWO b. CO c. TAO d. XO 22. Who Coordinates integration of waterborne and shoreside AT/FP assets into installation security forces? a. ATTWO b. CO c. TAO d. XO 23. Who is the senior enlisted security force member who supervises AT/FP Watchstanders? a. CDO b. COG c. OOD d. TAO 24. When moored at a U.S. Navy installation, ship s pier and waterborne watchstanders will be under the tactical control of the installation s security force. a. True b. False 25. Preplanned surveillance detection countermeasures to deter terrorist activities can include installing mechanical devices, varying modes of watchstander behavior, and employing physical barriers. a. True b. False Assignment 2-5

6 26. What is the ECP s second layer of defense? a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team 27. What is the ECP s last layer of defense? a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team 28. Who is responsible for all personnel and weapons at an ECP? a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team 29. Who conducts vehicle inspections, as assigned, based on FPCON and installation procedures? a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team 30. Who should be positioned behind ballistic protection? a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team Assignment 2-6

7 31. Who makes initial contact with individuals seeking entry onto an installation or pier? a. Contact Sentry b. Cover Sentry c. Inspection Team d. Weapons Team 32. What Level is used to protect a security interest that if lost, stolen, compromised, or sabotaged would cause serious damage to the command mission or gravely harm the operational capability of the United States? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level What Level is used to protect a security interest that if lost, stolen, compromised or sabotaged would cause great harm to the command mission or strategic capability of the United States? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level What Level is used protect a security interest that if lost, stolen, compromised, or sabotaged would cause damage to the command mission or impact upon the tactical capability of the United States? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 Assignment 2-7

8 35. Who augments fixed posts, covers withdrawal of forces, and conducts tactical entries and clearing of ships, piers, and buildings? a. Contact Sentry b. Pier Sentry c. Reaction Force d. Weapons Team 36. Who maintains a master listing of all security unit weapons and the assignment of those weapons? a. Armorer b. Commanding Officer c. Command Duty Officer d. Chief of the Guard 37. Prior to issuing any firearm or ammunition to any individual, the issuing activity will require that the individual execute a DD Form. a b c d What form must remain in your possession while carrying a firearm on duty? a. OPNAV 5511/2 b. OPNAV 5512/1 e. OPNAV 5511/1 f. OPNAV 5512/2 39. An armed response force must be able to respond within 25 minutes of an alarm or report of intrusion in AA&E storage areas. a. True b. False Assignment 2-8

9 40. How many years must a security check log of an AA&E be kept? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d Who is normally in charge of the rear convoy element to monitor rear security? a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC 42. Who is charged with responsibility for the planning, preparation, execution, and tactical employment of a convoy? a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC 43. Who is responsible for standard equipment requirements (ammunition, food, water, fuel, etc.) as well as organizing and rehearsing crew drills of assigned vehicle? a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC Assignment 2-9

10 44. Who ensures vehicle is on correct route via map or global positioning system (GPS) based movement tracking system (Blue Force Tracker, Movement Tracking System (MTS), and/or Qualcomm)? a. ACC b. CC c. LVC d. VC 45. Who is responsible for fueling and maintaining vehicle? a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Driver d. LVC 46. Who is responsible for primary and alternate sectors of fire? a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Driver d. Guardian Angels 47. Who assists the CC to ensure proportionate fire is used for any given threat? a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Driver d. Guardian Angels 48. Who are emplaced in hidden positions where they can observe and engage the enemy before they can attack the convoy? a. CSW Operator b. Designated Marksman c. Guardian Angels d. Security Personnel Assignment 2-10

11 49. Who renders medical treatment and supervises evacuation of casualties? a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team 50. Who prepare casualties for movement and/or evacuation? a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team 51. Who is responsible for establishing and marking the landing zone for possible MEDEVAC or other required support provided by air? a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team 52. What is assigned or attached to hardened vehicles with CSWs to provide suppressive fire support to the convoy as well as to serve as a deterrent to potential threat forces? a. A&L Team b. Combat Life Savers c. Gun Truck d. LZ Team Assignment 2-11

12 53. Who makes initial determination as to the adequacy of the intended fastrope landing zone (LZ) for HVBSS insertions? a. ACC b. AFC c. AMC d. ATL 54. Who provides a precision marksman (PM) for all HVBSS missions and VBSS missions if required? a. Commanding Officer b. HVBSS Team Leader c. LEDET Team Leader d. SOF Commander 55. Who provides and controls mission-ready aircraft and aircrews to support the HVBSS operation? a. ACC b. AFC c. OSC d. VIC 56. HVBSS is an option during daylight or night time without LEDET OPORD authorization. a. True b. False 57. What instruction provides procedures for Enemy Prisoners of War, Civilian Internees, Retained Persons, and other Detainees? a. OPNAVINST b. OPNAVINST c. SECNAVINST d. SECNAVINST Assignment 2-12

13 58. Reaction forces are armed personnel quickly responding to threats and incidents, augmenting Navy security forces, auxiliary security forces, and on-watch personnel. a. True b. False 59. What paragraph of the NTTP covers the safe weapon handling procedures for the M11 service pistol at the clearing barrel? a. Para 2.3 b. Para 3.3 c. Para 4.3 d. Para What paragraph of the NTTP covers the safe weapon handling procedures for the M9 service pistol at the clearing barrel? a. Para 2.3 b. Para 3.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para What paragraph of the NTTP covers the safe weapon handling procedures for the M16 rifle at the clearing barrel? a. Para 3.3 b. Para 4.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para What paragraph of the NTTP covers the safe weapon handling procedures for the M14 rifle at the clearing barrel? a. Para 3.3 b. Para 4.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para 6.3 Assignment 2-13

14 63. What paragraph of the NTTP covers the safe weapon handling procedures for the Mossberg 500 shotgun at the clearing barrel? a. Para 3.3 b. Para 4.3 c. Para 5.3 d. Para What is a single-shot weapon designed for use with the M16A3 rifle and fires a 40mm grenade? a. M201 b. M203 c. M302 d. M Who exercises local control of assigned small boats and associated personnel and reports directly to the TACSUP? a. Coxswain b. Crewman/Gunner c. Engineer d. Patrol Leader 66. Who mans a crew served weapon to provide protective fire during security boat operations? a. Coxswain b. Crewman/Gunner c. Engineer d. Patrol Leader Assignment 2-14

15 67. Who is responsible for the operations, care, and maintenance of all propulsion, auxiliary machinery, damage control, communication systems, electrical and electronic devices on a patrol boat? a. Coxswain b. Crewman/Gunner c. Engineer d. Patrol Leader 68. A Riverine Squadron consists of specially designed craft configured to operate in harbors of Navy bases. a. True b. False 69. Identify the boat pictured below? a. RAC b. RCB c. RPC d. None of the above Assignment 2-15

16 70. Identify the boat pictured below? a. RAC b. RCB c. RPC d. None of the above 71. Identify the boat pictured below? a. RAC b. RCB c. RCP d. None of the above Assignment 2-16

17 72. What is the CIN for the Navy Security Force Sentry School? a. A b. A c. C d. C What is the CIN for the Non-Compliant Boarding, Visit Board Search Seizure (VBSS) Team Member School? a. A-2E-0085 b. A c. A d. A What is the CIN for the Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Boarding Officer School? a. A-2E-0085 b. A c. A d. A What is the CIN for the Visit, Board, Search and Seizure (VBSS) Breacher School? a. A-2E-0085 b. A c. A d. A Assignment 2-17